2025 CS0-003: PROFESSIONAL COMPTIA CYBERSECURITY ANALYST (CYSA+) CERTIFICATION EXAM DUMPS FREE DOWNLOAD

2025 CS0-003: Professional CompTIA Cybersecurity Analyst (CySA+) Certification Exam Dumps Free Download

2025 CS0-003: Professional CompTIA Cybersecurity Analyst (CySA+) Certification Exam Dumps Free Download

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Tags: CS0-003 Dumps Free Download, CS0-003 Free Pdf Guide, New CS0-003 Braindumps, Updated CS0-003 Dumps, Review CS0-003 Guide

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CompTIA Cybersecurity Analyst (CySA+) Certification Exam Sample Questions (Q94-Q99):

NEW QUESTION # 94
Patches for two highly exploited vulnerabilities were released on the same Friday afternoon. Information about the systems and vulnerabilities is shown in the tables below:

Which of the following should the security analyst prioritize for remediation?

  • A. rogers
  • B. brees
  • C. brady
  • D. manning

Answer: C

Explanation:
Explanation
Brady should be prioritized for remediation, as it has the highest risk score and the highest number of affected users. The risk score is calculated by multiplying the CVSS score by the exposure factor, which is the percentage of systems that are vulnerable to the exploit. Brady has a risk score of 9 x 0.8 = 7.2, which is higher than any other system. Brady also has 500 affected users, which is more than any other system. Therefore, patching brady would reduce the most risk and impact for the organization. The other systems have lower risk scores and lower numbers of affected users, so they can be remediated later.


NEW QUESTION # 95
You are a penetration tester who is reviewing the system hardening guidelines for a company. Hardening guidelines indicate the following.
There must be one primary server or service per device.
Only default port should be used
Non- secure protocols should be disabled.
The corporate internet presence should be placed in a protected subnet
Instructions :
Using the available tools, discover devices on the corporate network and the services running on these devices.
You must determine
ip address of each device
The primary server or service each device
The protocols that should be disabled based on the hardening guidelines

Answer:

Explanation:
see the answer below in explanation:
Explanation:
Answer below images


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NEW QUESTION # 96
An organization enabled a SIEM rule to send an alert to a security analyst distribution list when ten failed logins occur within one minute. However, the control was unable to detect an attack with nine failed logins.
Which of the following best represents what occurred?

  • A. True positive
  • B. False positive
  • C. True negative
  • D. False negative

Answer: D

Explanation:
Explanation
The correct answer is C. False negative.
A false negative is a situation where an attack or a threat is not detected by a security control, even though it should have been. In this case, the SIEM rule was unable to detect an attack with nine failed logins, which is below the threshold of ten failed logins that triggers an alert. This means that the SIEM rule missed a potential attack and failed to alert the security analysts, resulting in a false negative.
A false positive is a situation where a benign or normal activity is detected as an attack or a threat by a security control, even though it is not. A true negative is a situation where a benign or normal activity is not detected as an attack or a threat by a security control, as expected. A true positive is a situation where an attack or a threat is detected by a security control, as expected. These are not the correct answers for this question.


NEW QUESTION # 97
A regulated organization experienced a security breach that exposed a list of customer names with corresponding PH dat a. Which of the following is the best reason for developing the organization's communication plans?

  • A. To ensure incidents are immediately reported to a regulatory agency
  • B. To automate the notification to customers who were impacted by the breach
  • C. To have approval from executive leadership on when communication should occur
  • D. For the organization's public relations department to have a standard notification

Answer: A

Explanation:
Developing an organization's communication plans is crucial to ensure that incidents, especially those involving sensitive data like PH (Protected Health) data, are promptly reported to the relevant regulatory agencies. This is essential for compliance with legal and regulatory requirements, which often mandate timely notification of data breaches. Effective communication plans help the organization manage the breach response process, mitigate potential legal penalties, and maintain transparency with regulatory bodies.


NEW QUESTION # 98
A security analyst reviews the following Arachni scan results for a web application that stores PII data:

Which of the following should be remediated first?

  • A. SQL injection
  • B. Code injection
  • C. RFI
  • D. XSS

Answer: A

Explanation:
SQL injection should be remediated first, as it is a high-severity vulnerability that can allow an attacker to execute arbitrary SQL commands on the database server and access, modify, or delete sensitive data, including PII. According to the Arachni scan results, there are two instances of SQL injection and three instances of blind SQL injection (two timing attacks and one differential analysis) in the web application. These vulnerabilities indicate that the web application does not properly validate or sanitize the user input before passing it to the database server, and thus exposes the database to malicious queries. SQL injection can have serious consequences for the confidentiality, integrity, and availability of the data and the system, and can also lead to further attacks, such as privilege escalation, data exfiltration, or remote code execution. Therefore, SQL injection should be the highest priority for remediation, and the web application should implement input validation, parameterized queries, and least privilege principle to prevent SQL injection attacks.


NEW QUESTION # 99
......

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